Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 12:19
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Central Ohio woman battles severe form of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease - 10tv.com
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Would you date/marry a guy younger than you? If no, why not?
There's no rule.